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  1. #151
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    What is the probability that the sum of the dots on n thrown dice is k?
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  2. #152
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    Originally Posted by Spaghettii View Post
    nah, 1/x from 1 to -1 cancels out because of signed area and ish. i meant, the area produced between -1 and 1 of 1/x^2.
    the integral of f'(x) / f(x) w.r.t x is just ln(f(x))

    so take f'(x) = 2x and turn it into

    0.5(1/x)*(2x/x^2) and integrate by parts

    edit: unless u were doing that already
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  3. #153
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    Originally Posted by Firepanda View Post
    the integral of f'(x) / f(x) w.r.t x is just ln(f(x))

    so take f'(x) = 2x and turn it into

    0.5(1/x)*(2x/x^2) and integrate by parts

    edit: unless u were doing that already
    don't know about that method...fuuuu i have a long way to go then, thnx.
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  4. #154
    Registered User Firepanda's Avatar
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    wait hang on a minute you can just write it as x^-2 and integrate that way easy enough

    i only mentioned the other way, which sends you into a huge roadblock, because I thought you had tried everything else
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  5. #155
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    Originally Posted by Firepanda View Post
    wait hang on a minute you can just write it as x^-2 and integrate that way easy enough

    i only mentioned the other way, which sends you into a huge roadblock, because I thought you had tried everything else
    i can use the second fundamental theorem of calculus for definite integrals, but i don't know if it works for the areas passing through x = 0. after all, on the interval [-1,1], the area is zero.
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  6. #156
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    Originally Posted by Spaghettii View Post
    i can use the second fundamental theorem of calculus for definite integrals, but i don't know if it works for the areas passing through x = 0. after all, on the interval [-1,1], the area is zero.
    I'm confused about these integrals that pass through zero too
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  7. #157
    Unregistered Broscientist mr_ben's Avatar
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    32490291 X 0 + lulz = ?
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  8. #158
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    Originally Posted by Merauder View Post
    I'm confused about these integrals that pass through zero too
    bump for this
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  9. #159
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    Originally Posted by mr_ben View Post
    32490291 X 0 + lulz = ?
    http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i...X+0+%2B+lulz+=
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  10. #160
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    Okay I'm dropping the bomb
















































































































    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity = 1
    or
    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity =/= 1?
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  11. #161
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    Originally Posted by Improves View Post
    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity = 1
    or
    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity =/= 1?

    show this by using infinite series
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  12. #162
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    Originally Posted by 21Classic View Post
    solve a millenium problem


    i win again
    In b4 op is not a millionaire.
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  13. #163
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    Originally Posted by Improves View Post

    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity = 1
    or
    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity =/= 1?
    let x = 0.99999999999999999999999999999999 to infinity
    10x = 9.999999999999999999999999999999999 to infinity
    10x-x = 9
    9x=9
    x=1

    how about
    1=1
    =sqrt1
    =sqrt(-1x-1)
    =sqrt-1 x sqrt-1
    = -1

    Who will be first to spot the technicality.
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  14. #164
    Registered User Firepanda's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by Spaghettii View Post
    bump for this
    if it doesnt converege then it doesnt converge
    Last edited by Firepanda; 05-20-2010 at 05:54 AM.
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  15. #165
    Registered User kiwimac's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by JRAK12 View Post
    how about
    1=1
    =sqrt1
    =sqrt(-1x-1)
    =sqrt-1 x sqrt-1
    = -1

    Who will be first to spot the technicality.
    sqrt(-1x-1)=/=sqrt-1 x sqrt-1

    sqrt(xy)=sqrt(x)sqrt(y) is only true for nonnegative real numbers x and y.
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  16. #166
    Banned Merauder's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by kiwimac View Post
    sqrt(-1x-1)=/=sqrt-1 x sqrt-1

    sqrt(xy)=sqrt(x)sqrt(y) is only true for nonnegative real numbers x and y.
    can someone prove this?

    sqrt(xy)=sqrt(x)sqrt(y) is only true for nonnegative real numbers x and y
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  17. #167
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    Bump
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  18. #168
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    Originally Posted by Merauder View Post
    I'm confused about these integrals that pass through zero too
    i found out today that the integral does not exist.
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  19. #169
    Registered User turkey_server's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by Improves View Post
    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity = 1
    or
    0.9999999999999999999999999999...to infinity =/= 1?
    1, by definition of an infinite sum.
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  20. #170
    Banned Merauder's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by MiscMathematician View Post
    For a proof that it IS true for x,y>=0 I will need your axioms. The proof that it is ONLY true in general is given by a counter example.

    x = -1, y=-1

    sqrt(xy)=1 but sqrt(x)sqrt(y) = -1.

    Sometimes it is true, so a proof cannot be given for all cases. i.e. x=2,y=-2 will give 2i as answer either way. To prove that something isn't "true in general" all you need is a counterexample.

    yes it is not true in general, but for non negative real numbers?
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  21. #171
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    Originally Posted by Spaghettii View Post
    i found out today that the integral does not exist.
    if f(0) is not defined you can do something with taylor series I think but I'm not quite there yet
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  22. #172
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    Originally Posted by Merauder View Post
    if f(0) is not defined you can do something with taylor series I think but I'm not quite there yet
    today i'm learning integration by parts. volumes and the avg. value of a function were all VERY easy. i'm starting to like integrals!
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    Originally Posted by Spaghettii View Post
    today i'm learning integration by parts. volumes and the avg. value of a function were all VERY easy. i'm starting to like integrals!
    what's your education maybe?

    or just learning this for fun?
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  24. #174
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    Originally Posted by Merauder View Post
    what's your education maybe?

    or just learning this for fun?
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  25. #175
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    Originally Posted by Merauder View Post
    if f(0) is not defined you can do something with taylor series I think but I'm not quite there yet
    Doesn't change the fact that it's undefined as stands. If the function were merely discontinuous with finite limits at 0, we'd be able to handle it, but it should be clear that in this case the area goes to infinity. Similarly, if it were say, 1/x, we'd be able to exploit the odd nature of the function to conclude (with a bit of tweaking) that the integral is 0.
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  26. #176
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    whats the square root of this apartment
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    Originally Posted by eeeeee! View Post
    whats the square root of this apartment
    funny
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    Originally Posted by MiscMathematician View Post
    For non-negative real numbers one needs a set of assumptions to work from; different classes/books start from different assumptions so I need a basis. Otherwise this is my proof: Obvious. QED.

    A more sophisticated proof might look like this:

    proof one post higher
    doesn't look like you had a lot of trouble proving this

    what did you study maybe?
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  29. #179
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    Originally Posted by KenshinR1 View Post
    what is your take on Laplace equations
    Lol I would have asked a similar question, were studying that now. OP can only answer highschool math questions.
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