View Poll Results: Whats the answer

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  • 25

    66 15.46%
  • 33

    51 11.94%
  • 50

    230 53.86%
  • 66

    24 5.62%
  • 75

    56 13.11%
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  1. #31
    Archwizard kanis999's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by DEVBRUH View Post
    So many people failing at statistics...

    The probability is 50%. The first child does not affect the second child's gender probability and there are two possibilities (boy + boy and boy + girl) with equal probabilities, so 50%.
    Most succinct way of saying what should have been obvious. Grats.
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  2. #32
    Banned Pandai's Avatar
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    Isn't there a possibility* of the baby being born a hermaphrodite?
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  3. #33
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    Originally Posted by Geou View Post
    When you have 2 kids, there are 4 possibilities for the gender distributions. With B represents Boy and G representing Girl, there's:
    GG
    GB
    BG
    BB

    We know that GG is not the case, since there's at least 1 boy. That means GB, BG, and BB remain. Here, BB is the only case that satisfies having 2 boys. Thus, the probability of having BB is 1/3rd.
    GB and BG would be the same thing in the end brah + as said above the first child would be a boy, so 50% chance for the second child.
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  4. #34
    Registered User hardbrah69's Avatar
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    don't see option for 100% for those of us alphas with the power to command our sperm

    obviously the answer is 50% you potatoes - one event occurs of which the probability is 0.5
    Last edited by hardbrah69; 11-15-2013 at 02:51 PM.
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  5. #35
    mic dropper pondus_levo's Avatar
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    about 75%

    100% + 50% / 2

    If we didn't know the sex of either, it would be 33%.

    There is do difference between BG, and GB, the order does not matter.
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  6. #36
    288 Curlzbrah's Avatar
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    The question sucks. The statement "One is a boy" doesn't necessarily determine from what moment we are calculating the probability.

    Before knowing that one kid is a boy: 0.5^2 = 1/4

    After one kid (=boy) was born, there is only one variable left: 1/2

    EDIT:

    Originally Posted by SonOfAristaeus View Post
    GB and BG would be the same thing in the end brah + as said above the first child would be a boy, so 50% chance for the second child.
    Wrong. If you ONLY do know that one is a boy, but you do not know that the first child is a boy, the chance indeed is 1/3
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  7. #37
    Cancer Nurse Brah DatMurse's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by Geou View Post
    When you have 2 kids, there are 4 possibilities for the gender distributions. With B represents Boy and G representing Girl, there's:
    GG
    GB
    BG
    BB

    We know that GG is not the case, since there's at least 1 boy. That means GB, BG, and BB remain. Here, BB is the only case that satisfies having 2 boys. Thus, the probability of having BB is 1/3rd.


    I hate the misc sometimes
    its 50/50
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    Last edited by DatMurse; 11-15-2013 at 03:23 PM.
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  8. #38
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    Originally Posted by Geou View Post
    When you have 2 kids, there are 4 possibilities for the gender distributions. With B represents Boy and G representing Girl, there's:
    GG
    GB
    BG
    BB

    We know that GG is not the case, since there's at least 1 boy. That means GB, BG, and BB remain. Here, BB is the only case that satisfies having 2 boys. Thus, the probability of having BB is 1/3rd.
    This is correct.
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  9. #39
    Registered User Ranniks's Avatar
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    If the chance of a boy is 50% and 50% for a girl, then the chance for both is 25%. If you flip a coin twice, the chance of two times heads is: 0.5*0.5=0.25 thus 25%.

    People are like:

    BB
    GG
    BG
    GB

    Think of it the other way:

    HH
    CC
    HC
    CH

    Flip twice, what is the chance: 0.5*0.5=0.25 = 25%.

    Yeah, just like that.
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  10. #40
    Registered User HotCheetos's Avatar
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    Lol at poverty math = 50%

    Try again (math bachelors fyi)
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  11. #41
    Registered User Anesthetize18's Avatar
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    dumbasses overthinking it (overcompensating?), intelligent miscers getting it within 2 seconds.
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  12. #42
    Rossoneri zergfest's Avatar
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    GG
    GB
    BG
    BB

    (1 is guaranteed to be a boy). It didn't say whether it's first or 2nd.

    So only remaining cases are :

    GB
    BG
    BB

    (with 1/3 chance of each one happening... since it's 1 out of 3 choices for those who are too retard for fractions)


    We want BB (since that's what OP asked us to look for)

    That's only 1 of the 3 options.

    So it's 1/3


    Originally Posted by HotCheetos View Post
    Lol at poverty math = 50%

    Try again (math bachelors fyi)
    Go back to school you retard


    Originally Posted by Ranniks View Post
    If the chance of a boy is 50% and 50% for a girl, then the chance for both is 25%. If you flip a coin twice, the chance of two times heads is: 0.5*0.5=0.25 thus 25%.

    People are like:

    BB
    GG
    BG
    GB

    Think of it the other way:

    HH
    CC
    HC
    CH

    Flip twice, what is the chance: 0.5*0.5=0.25 = 25%.

    Yeah, just like that.
    Except he said 1 is GUARANTEED to be a boy.

    so GG is not an option. Potato.
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  13. #43
    The Realist Manne1's Avatar
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    wow miscers r retarded


    when u have a child its either a boy or a girl so 50/50
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  14. #44
    Registered User PRIMETIMEENT's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by Geou View Post
    When you have 2 kids, there are 4 possibilities for the gender distributions. With B represents Boy and G representing Girl, there's:
    GG
    GB
    BG
    BB

    We know that GG is not the case, since there's at least 1 boy. That means GB, BG, and BB remain. Here, BB is the only case that satisfies having 2 boys. Thus, the probability of having BB is 1/3rd.
    is wrong because it determines the probability of 2 boys, not the
    probability that both are boys given one is. Thus, this answer leaves out some
    important information-- the fact that you know one child is a boy. This information
    destroys the "equally likely" assumption. You can easily see that the 4 possible
    outcomes are no longer equally likely when you realize that the information that one
    child is a boy makes the probability of the event GG = zero.

    Since births of children are independent of each other, the first child's sex has
    no bearing on the other's. Since about half of the births are male, the
    probability of the second child being a boy is .50.

    If B1 = first child is a boy, B2 that the second is a boy, then, by the
    independence rule and the formula for conditional probabilities, p(B2 | B1) =
    p(B2) = .50.
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  15. #45
    Registered User cjpinz's Avatar
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    its 50-50. it either happens or it doesnt.
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  16. #46
    drink more water amikaelmorris's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by Curlzbrah View Post
    The question sucks. The statement "One is a boy" doesn't necessarily determine from what moment we are calculating the probability.

    Before knowing that one kid is a boy: 0.5^2 = 1/4

    After one kid (=boy) was born, there is only one variable left: 1/2

    EDIT:



    Wrong. If you ONLY do know that one is a boy, but you do not know that the first child is a boy, the chance indeed 75%
    i checked 25% originally thinking in my head but this makes more sense to me cause the births are separate events so you can't calculate probability the same way as if they happened at the same time.. either birth is 50-50 so the one being a boy leaves you with another 50-50 chance. 50% that one is a boy, 50% that both are
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  17. #47
    288 Curlzbrah's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by DatMurse View Post


    I hate the misc sometimes
    He isn't wrong (srs).

    If you do ONLY know that one of the kids is a boy, but you DO NOT KNOW that the FIRST kid is a boy, then the chance is 1/3. But this case is not the standard case, because usually one baby is born after the other, so you'll know most definitely what gender the first kid has.



    But we could engineer a case, where the probability would be 1/3: A woman gives birth to twins, but they are taken to humidcribs. The women falls unconcious during the procedure, and when she is awake the nurse only tells her that one kid is a boy. Now the probability would be 1/3 for the second kid to be a boy.
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  18. #48
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    Originally Posted by Manne1 View Post
    wow miscers r retarded


    when u have a child its either a boy or a girl so 50/50
    Both kids already exist. He didn't ask what are the odds of the the second child only, in which case it would be 50%. You have to factor in the existing boy, which is a known. The order does not matter.
    Last edited by pondus_levo; 11-15-2013 at 03:06 PM.
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  19. #49
    288 Curlzbrah's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by amikaelmorris View Post
    i checked 25% originally thinking in my head but this makes more sense to me cause the births are separate events so you can't calculate probability the same way as if they happened at the same time.. either birth is 50-50 so the one being a boy leaves you with another 50-50 chance. 50% that one is a boy, 50% that both are
    yeah I'm sorry about the 75%, got it wrong. should be p=(1/2) and p=(1/3), depending on what information the chitty problem-statement provides.
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  20. #50
    Registered User HotCheetos's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by zergfest View Post
    GG
    GB
    BG
    BB

    (1 is guaranteed to be a boy). It didn't say whether it's first or 2nd.

    So only remaining cases are :

    GB
    BG
    BB

    (with 1/3 chance of each one happening... since it's 1 out of 3 choices for those who are too retard for fractions)


    We want BB (since that's what OP asked us to look for)

    That's only 1 of the 3 options.

    So it's 1/3




    Go back to school you retard




    Except he said 1 is GUARANTEED to be a boy.

    so GG is not an option. Potato.
    Guess I wasn't clear

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  21. #51
    M.D. Crew Liet's Avatar
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    lol so many unaware brahs. Answer is 1/3
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  22. #52
    The Realist Manne1's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by zergfest View Post
    GG
    GB
    BG
    BB

    (1 is guaranteed to be a boy). It didn't say whether it's first or 2nd.

    So only remaining cases are :

    GB
    BG
    BB

    (with 1/3 chance of each one happening... since it's 1 out of 3 choices for those who are too retard for fractions)


    We want BB (since that's what OP asked us to look for)

    That's only 1 of the 3 options.

    So it's 1/3




    Go back to school you retard




    Except he said 1 is GUARANTEED to be a boy.

    so GG is not an option. Potato.
    are u dumb?????????????

    Only possibilities are

    BB

    BG

    If one of them is already a boy that means the second is either a boy or a girl u have a 50/50
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  23. #53
    Registered User Psychotropic's Avatar
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    The answer is 1/3

    No need to show the reasoning because it’s so obvious. Other posts show it

    To those saying 1/2, ask yourself this problem:

    I have 2 kids. What is the probability that both are boys? Using your retarded reasoning you would answer 1/3 but that is wrong.
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    bottom line: FUK MATH
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    With genetic testing and abortion = 100%
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    Originally Posted by Spanishgirl View Post
    Still 50%
    u wanna test this?
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    Guys if you know PRIOR to the 'coin flip' that one of the flips will be heads, it is essentially taking that flip out of the equation. It doesn't count any more. There is one remaining coin flip.

    I'm starting to see how both sides could actually be right.
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    Originally Posted by Psychotropic View Post
    The answer is 1/3

    No need to show the reasoning because it’s so obvious. Other posts show it

    To those saying 1/2, ask yourself this problem:

    I have 2 kids. What is the probability that both are boys? Using your retarded reasoning you would answer 1/3 but that is wrong.
    Actually yeah, you're right.

    I retract my earlier statement about P(A I B).

    It really does come down to

    BB

    BG

    GB

    and GG being eliminated since it doesn't meet the minimum 1 boy rule. So then you have 1/3 as the answer.
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    Originally Posted by Curlzbrah View Post
    yeah I'm sorry about the 75%, got it wrong. should be p=(1/2) and p=(1/3), depending on what information the chitty problem-statement provides.
    yeah actually you're right, i was working under the assumption that the boy was already in existence which isn't necessarily true given how it's worded

    in that case your options are: BG, BB 1/2
    if it doesn't already exist: GB, BG, BB 1/3

    interesting
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    Originally Posted by D1Z View Post
    My prayers are with you OP. Let's hope the other is a boy too.
    lol'd
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