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  1. #61
    Registered User Paul Kreul's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    The same reason slavery was legal. Different time and place.



    What your perceived definition of iddah is irrelevant. I've posted the islamqa which strictly prohibits intercourse with a girl who is prepubescent. Its the period of time after divorce which is measured through menstrual periods. Child marriages did occur during that time and they were given instructions on how to deal with girls who have not yet had their menstrual period. Again, marriage and consummation of the marriage are two different things that you keep conflating.
    All incorrect, you posted the stipulations of the iddah, not the reason FOR the iddah!

    Show me what is the REASON for the iddah, I posted 2 sources..I can post over a dozen more..again why would a minor need to perform an iddah if she had not had sex yet???

    “ Iddat is an Islamic concept that refers to the period of waiting that follows the dissolution of a Muslim marriage. It is a mandatory waiting period during which the woman cannot remarry. The purpose of Iddat is to ensure that the woman is not pregnant before entering into a new marriage.”

    https://lawctopus.com/clatalogue/cla...personal-law/#


    Among the wisdoms of the Iddah we have first to make sure that the divorced woman is not pregnant as to avoid mixing up progeny as this results in much depravity.


    https://www.islamweb.net/amp/en/fatwa/85417/

    The primary object of ‘iddah is imposed to ascertain whether the woman is pregnant so that the paternity of the child that may be born to her after the death of her husband or the dissolution of her marriage may be determined.


    https://islamqa.org/hanafi/askimam/2...od-of-waiting/


    So AGAIN… .why would a girl a minor be required to wait 3 months to see if she was with child if she had not have had sex yet??

    You gonna keep lying??

    See this from YOUR SOURCE…

    If the woman is divorced by talaq before the man has entered upon her and been alone with her, i.e., before intercourse or intimacy with her, then she does not have to observe any ‘Iddah at all…


    AT ALL.

    https://islamqa.info/amp/en/answers/12667
    Last edited by Paul Kreul; 05-13-2024 at 06:27 PM.
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  2. #62
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    All incorrect, you posted the stipulations of the iddah, not the reason FOR the iddah!

    Show me what is the REASON for the iddah, I posted 2 sources..I can post over a dozen more..again why would a minor need to perform an iddah if she had not had sex yet???

    “ Iddat is an Islamic concept that refers to the period of waiting that follows the dissolution of a Muslim marriage. It is a mandatory waiting period during which the woman cannot remarry. The purpose of Iddat is to ensure that the woman is not pregnant before entering into a new marriage.”

    https://lawctopus.com/clatalogue/cla...personal-law/#


    Among the wisdoms of the Iddah we have first to make sure that the divorced woman is not pregnant as to avoid mixing up progeny as this results in much depravity.


    https://www.islamweb.net/amp/en/fatwa/85417/


    You gonna keep lying??
    How does a prepubescent child become pregnant? Are you actually this retarded or what?
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  3. #63
    Fuk off, Lahey! LargePeter's Avatar
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    inb4 the resident leftards and chalup come in to defend child sex
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  4. #64
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    Originally Posted by dabbmw2002 View Post
    You are one retarded motherfuker or an expert troll.

    Supporting Muslims doesn't mean supporting the religion you dumb fuk. It means that other people exist and you have to get along with them. If you
    draw anywhere from that that I support a p3do profit, you're a fuking idiot. And yes you brain dead retard, Judaism and christianity also have stupid chit in them. Acknowledging a demonstrable fact is not attacking those religions.


    You have the reasoning and logic of a chimpanzee and seeing as you've kept it up for years on this board, I don't think it's an act. May God have mercy on your two digit IQ soul.
    Supporting Muslims, doesn’t support Islam?

    And you call me brain dead? Lmao you BIG mad and stupid. Jesus.
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  5. #65
    Registered User chalup's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by LargePeter View Post
    inb4 the resident leftards and chalup come in to defend child sex
    Seems you can’t read, all your friends in here defending Islam and by default Mohammed, a CERTIFIED P3DO.


    Where did your friend Zelensky go? Why did he dip out as soon as Muslims were brought up?


    Do you defend Palestine and Muslims too? You on that Chomo time too? Lmao damn we got some major twist going on right now.
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  6. #66
    Registered User chalup's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    The same reason slavery was legal. Different time and place.



    What your perceived definition of iddah is irrelevant. I've posted the islamqa which strictly prohibits intercourse with a girl who is prepubescent. Its the period of time after divorce which is measured through menstrual periods. Child marriages did occur during that time and they were given instructions on how to deal with girls who have not yet had their menstrual period. Again, marriage and consummation of the marriage are two different things that you keep conflating.

    How does Islam treat girls who have had their period? Is is OK then? If a 12 year old is post period, marriage and intercourse is OK in 2024?
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  7. #67
    Registered User Paul Kreul's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    How does a prepubescent child become pregnant? Are you actually this retarded or what?
    Hence the iddah dum dum

    “ A woman becomes able to get pregnant when she ovulates for the first time — about 14 days before her first menstrual period. This happens to some women as early as when they are eight years old, or even earlier”

    https://www.plannedparenthood.org/bl...even%20earlier.


    Again.. why would a minor need to perform an iddah if she had not had sex yet???


    FFS you Muslims not only support p3dofilla but are dumb AF
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  8. #68
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    Hence the iddah dum dum

    “ A woman becomes able to get pregnant when she ovulates for the first time — about 14 days before her first menstrual period. This happens to some women as early as when they are eight years old, or even earlier”

    https://www.plannedparenthood.org/bl...even%20earlier.


    FFS you Muslims not only support p3dofilla but are dumb AF
    What is your actual argument here? I'm confused. You cannot consummate the marriage in Islam with a prepubescent girl. When do girls first get their period? I posted that earlier. People viewed and married differently 1400+ years ago. Just like slavery was legal.
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  9. #69
    Registered User chalup's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    Hence the iddah dum dum

    “ A woman becomes able to get pregnant when she ovulates for the first time — about 14 days before her first menstrual period. This happens to some women as early as when they are eight years old, or even earlier”

    https://www.plannedparenthood.org/bl...even%20earlier.


    Again.. why would a minor need to perform an iddah if she had not had sex yet???


    FFS you Muslims not only support p3dofilla but are dumb AF

    Their logic is exactly why refugees do mass raping in Countries they migrate to in Europe.
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  10. #70
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    Yeah, execute all the murderes and rapists imo. No point in keeping them alive and bullets are cheap.
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  11. #71
    Registered User Paul Kreul's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    What is your actual argument here? I'm confused. You cannot consummate the marriage in Islam with a prepubescent girl. When do girls first get their period? I posted that earlier. People viewed and married differently 1400+ years ago. Just like slavery was legal.
    OMG..are you really this mental??

    Let’s go through this one more time…the only purpose for a female to perform an iddah (a waiting period of 3 months) is to see if she is with child or not..understand? Do you need more sources, happy to post them.

    So again..why would a minor need to perform an iddah if she had not had sex yet?
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  12. #72
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    So again..why would a minor need to perform an iddah if she had not had sex yet?
    Because that's Islamic law. You're assuming an implication that cannot be true and you're applying logic as if that applies to religious law. It doesn't. Religion is faith based. You either believe it or you don't. It's not meant to be logical.
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  13. #73
    Registered User Paul Kreul's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    Because that's Islamic law. You're assuming an implication that cannot be true and you're applying logic as if that applies to religious law. It doesn't. Religion is faith based. You either believe it or you don't. It's not meant to be logical.
    No I'm not assuming..again..from your source..

    If the woman is divorced by talaq before the man has entered upon her and been alone with her, i.e., before intercourse or intimacy with her, then she does not have to observe any ‘Iddah at all…

    AT ALL

    https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1266...-after-divorce

    Understand now?? An iddah only needs to be performed if she has HAD SEX. Get it??!!

    You need to disavow that demonic religion
    Last edited by Paul Kreul; 05-13-2024 at 07:01 PM.
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  14. #74
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    No I'm not assuming..again..from your source..

    If the woman is divorced by talaq before the man has entered upon her and been alone with her, i.e., before intercourse or intimacy with her, then she does not have to observe any ‘Iddah at all…

    AT ALL

    https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1266...-after-divorce

    Understand now?? An iddah only needs to be performed if she has HAD SEX. Get it??!!
    What is the purpose of iddah? To allow them to get remarried and/or establish paternity. Women in Islam cannot get married while they are pregnant if they've married Islamically. I've explained to you that you cannot have sex with prepubescent girls in Islam so why does the iddah apply to them? Because the goal of iddah is essential to give the ability to remarry. You can marry a prepubescent girl in Islam with the permission of her guardian according to the text but you cannot have intercourse until she menstruates.
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    Registered User Paul Kreul's Avatar
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    What is the purpose of iddah? To allow them to get remarried and/or establish paternity. Women in Islam cannot get married while they are pregnant if they've married Islamically. I've explained to you that you cannot have sex with prepubescent girls in Islam so why does the iddah apply to them? Because the goal of iddah is essential to give the ability to remarry. You can marry a prepubescent girl in Islam with the permission of her guardian according to the text but you cannot have intercourse until she menstruates.
    No, the purpose of the iddah is to see if the woman is pregnant..that is why it is 3 months..

    “ Iddat is an Islamic concept that refers to the period of waiting that follows the dissolution of a Muslim marriage. It is a mandatory waiting period during which the woman cannot remarry. The purpose of Iddat is to ensure that the woman is not pregnant before entering into a new marriage.”

    https://lawctopus.com/clatalogue/cla...personal-law/#

    Among the wisdoms of the Iddah we have first to make sure that the divorced woman is not pregnant as to avoid mixing up progeny as this results in much depravity.


    https://www.islamweb.net/amp/en/fatwa/85417/

    The primary object of ‘iddah is imposed to ascertain whether the woman is pregnant so that the paternity of the child that may be born to her after the death of her husband or the dissolution of her marriage may be determined.


    https://islamqa.org/hanafi/askimam/2...od-of-waiting/



    From your book itself..

    Divorced women must wait three monthly cycles ˹before they can remarry’. It is not lawful for them to conceal what Allah has created in their wombs,1 if they ˹truly˺ believe in Allah and the Last Day. And their husbands reserve the right to take them back within that period if they desire reconciliation.” [Surah al-Baqarah, 2:228]

    https://blog.hautehijab.com/post/wha...uick-breakdown


    So AGAIN… .why would a girl a minor be required to wait 3 months to see if she was with child if she had not have had sex yet??

    If it is as you state then why no iddah if she has not had sex?

    Go on...
    Last edited by Paul Kreul; 05-13-2024 at 07:25 PM.
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    Originally Posted by chalup View Post
    How does Islam treat girls who have had their period? Is is OK then? If a 12 year old is post period, marriage and intercourse is OK in 2024?
    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    What is the purpose of iddah? To allow them to get remarried and/or establish paternity. Women in Islam cannot get married while they are pregnant if they've married Islamically. I've explained to you that you cannot have sex with prepubescent girls in Islam so why does the iddah apply to them? Because the goal of iddah is essential to give the ability to remarry. You can marry a prepubescent girl in Islam with the permission of her guardian according to the text but you cannot have intercourse until she menstruates.

    You going to answer this or nah?
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    No, the purpose of the iddah is to see if the woman is pregnant..that is why it is 3 months..

    “ Iddat is an Islamic concept that refers to the period of waiting that follows the dissolution of a Muslim marriage. It is a mandatory waiting period during which the woman cannot remarry. The purpose of Iddat is to ensure that the woman is not pregnant before entering into a new marriage.”

    https://lawctopus.com/clatalogue/cla...personal-law/#

    Among the wisdoms of the Iddah we have first to make sure that the divorced woman is not pregnant as to avoid mixing up progeny as this results in much depravity.


    https://www.islamweb.net/amp/en/fatwa/85417/

    The primary object of ‘iddah is imposed to ascertain whether the woman is pregnant so that the paternity of the child that may be born to her after the death of her husband or the dissolution of her marriage may be determined.


    https://islamqa.org/hanafi/askimam/2...od-of-waiting/


    So AGAIN… .why would a girl a minor be required to wait 3 months to see if she was with child if she had not have had sex yet??

    If it is as you state then why no iddah if she has not had sex?

    Go on...
    So were just going in circles now? "No, the purpose of the iddah is to see if the woman is pregnant..that is why it is 3 months.. " Even though I've already stated you cannot have intercourse with a prepubescent girl, how does a prepubescent girl become pregnant? If she cannot get pregnant, why does she need iddah? Because that's just the rule when it comes to being able to remarry. You can marry prepubescent girls but you cannot consummate the marriage until she menstruates. Again, you keep trying to apply logic to religion.
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    So were just going in circles now? "No, the purpose of the iddah is to see if the woman is pregnant..that is why it is 3 months.. " Even though I've already stated you cannot have intercourse with a prepubescent girl, how does a prepubescent girl become pregnant? If she cannot get pregnant, why does she need iddah? Because that's just the rule when it comes to being able to remarry. You can marry prepubescent girls but you cannot consummate the marriage until she menstruates. Again, you keep trying to apply logic to religion.
    your prophet allows intercourse with a prepubescent girl...that is why it states..


    AND THE ‘IDDAT FOR THE GIRL BEFORE PUBERTY IS THREE MONTHS . (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62, Number 63)




    so again..why an iddah for a child?


    An iddah is performed to see if the female is with child..that is why it is 3 months, to show evidence of a child. Do you understand this?


    Even if you go with your argument, it is to show if she is bleeding...you still fuked yourself...understand why?
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    your prophet allows intercourse with a prepubescent girl...that is why it states..


    AND THE ‘IDDAT FOR THE GIRL BEFORE PUBERTY IS THREE MONTHS . (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62, Number 63)




    so again..why an iddah for a child?


    An iddah is performed to see if the female is with child..that is why it is 3 months, to show evidence of a child. Do you understand this?


    Even if you go with your argument, it is to show if she is bleeding...you still fuked yourself...understand why?
    Where does the prophet allow intercourse with prepubescent girls?

    Yes, the waiting period for prepubescents girls is three months. You can marry prepubescent girls. You cannot consummate the marriage with prepubescent girls. Why is that so difficult for you to understand?

    Lets go back to where you even pulled up 65:4. Surah At-Talaq is in reference to divorce. Prepubescent girls can get married and have rights. That's why they are legally required to observe iddah.

    You're doing a whole lot of assuming and applying logic to religion. This isn't a science. It's faith based.
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    Where does the prophet allow intercourse with prepubescent girls?

    Yes, the waiting period for prepubescents girls is three months. You can marry prepubescent girls. You cannot consummate the marriage with prepubescent girls. Why is that so difficult for you to understand?

    Lets go back to where you even pulled up 65:4. Surah At-Talaq is in reference to divorce. Prepubescent girls can get married and have rights. That's why they are legally required to observe iddah.

    You're doing a whole lot of assuming and applying logic to religion. This isn't a science. It's faith based.

    OMG...the waiting period is 3 months to determine if she is pregnant or not..you understand this?

    Yes or No.


    "The primary object of ‘iddah is imposed to ascertain whether the woman is pregnant so that the paternity of the child that may be born to her after the death of her husband or the dissolution of her marriage may be determined."
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    OMG...the waiting period is 3 months to determine if she is pregnant or not..you understand this?

    Yes or No.


    "The primary object of ‘iddah is imposed to ascertain whether the woman is pregnant so that the paternity of the child that may be born to her after the death of her husband or the dissolution of her marriage may be determined."
    Ok I’ll ask you for the millionth time but how does a prepubescent girl get pregnant?
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    Ok I’ll ask you for the millionth time but how does a prepubescent girl get pregnant?

    Dude are you serious? Even if a girl hasn't had their first period, they can get pregnant if they have sex. This is because of something called ovulation, which happens even before they are having periods.

    Dude..what is your level of education? Be honest
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    Originally Posted by Paul Kreul View Post
    Dude are you serious? Even if a girl hasn't had their first period, they can get pregnant if they have sex. This is because of something called ovulation, which happens even before they are having periods.

    Dude..what is your level of education? Be honest
    You say iddah is to determine whether or not a girl is pregnant. Prepubescent girls cannot get pregnant. Yes there’s a circumstance where before her first ovulation she can get pregnant but you cannot have intercourse with prepubescent girls in Islam. Why is that difficult for you to understand? Then you’re going to ask me then why does the iddah apply to prepubescent girls and I’m going to say because that girl can technically remarry but Allah said she needs to wait 3 months. You’re assuming that Allah is making the prepubescent girl wait 3 months due to her potentially being pregnant. You’re not an Islamic scholar to make that assumption.
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    Originally Posted by AdvancedDreamer View Post
    You say iddah is to determine whether or not a girl is pregnant. Prepubescent girls cannot get pregnant. Yes there’s a circumstance where before her first ovulation she can get pregnant but you cannot have intercourse with prepubescent girls in Islam. Why is that difficult for you to understand? Then you’re going to ask me then why does the iddah apply to prepubescent girls and I’m going to say because that girl can technically remarry but Allah said she needs to wait 3 months. You’re assuming that Allah is making the prepubescent girl wait 3 months due to her potentially being pregnant. You’re not an Islamic scholar to make that assumption.
    that is why there is a waiting period...it's not just pregnancy that the 3 months to determine..it's also waiting to see if she bleeds..a virgin or not

    At-Talaq 65:4

    وَٱلَّٰٓـِٔى يَئِسْنَ مِنَ ٱلْمَحِيضِ مِن نِّسَآئِكُمْ إِنِ ٱرْتَبْتُمْ فَعِدَّتُهُنَّ ثَلَٰثَةُ أَشْهُرٍ وَٱلَّٰٓـِٔى لَمْ يَحِضْنَۚ وَأُو۟لَٰتُ ٱلْأَحْمَالِ أَجَلُهُنَّ أَن يَضَعْنَ حَمْلَهُنَّۚ وَمَن يَتَّقِ ٱللَّهَ يَجْعَل لَّهُۥ مِنْ أَمْرِهِۦ يُسْرًا

    "And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women – if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah – He will make for him of his matter ease."
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    Originally Posted by dabbmw2002 View Post
    Me objecting to the general assertion that Muslims should never be supported means Im Palestinian or support P3do Mohammed? What kind of chit tier thinking is that? You wanna comb through Christianity and Judaism? You'll find some stupit chit too. Cute coming from someone who married a Nazi sympathizing bandera, you words meams less than the nuts in my chit.
    you're a self hating jew


    and chlup is just an idiotic ukicel mouth breather
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    Originally Posted by chalup View Post
    Seems you can’t read, all your friends in here defending Islam and by default Mohammed, a CERTIFIED P3DO.


    Where did your friend Zelensky go? Why did he dip out as soon as Muslims were brought up?


    Do you defend Palestine and Muslims too? You on that Chomo time too? Lmao damn we got some major twist going on right now.
    I understand you're mentally retarded - the Russia/Ukraine threads in the R&P prove that - but where exactly did I suggest I would defend Muslims after I laughed at leftards and you coming in here to defend child sex? The second most significant Islamic figure married a child, and you're on record defending Joe Biden for fuking his daughter in a shower. You're basically TimBisonSon.
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    Would need to execute the entire country, Muslims are literally all p3d0s
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    Too easy IMO. They should go the eunuch route like they used to where they cut their peenors off and then make them live their lives without any future possibility of sex. And make sure they are marked visibly so everyone avoids them. A fate much worse than quick death.
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    Originally Posted by chalup View Post
    So you down with supporting a religion whose main person is a p3do? Damn son, I’m going to go out on a limb here and guess you have family ties to Palenstine

    Or is it OK when Mohammed marries and fuks a 9 year old because “different cultures” yet people like you swear Biden is a chomo?
    You literally fought to defend an old man feeling up a little girl just a few days ago.

    https://forum.bodybuilding.com/showt...5243163&page=3
    "Do you think SHE actually felt like that was a sexual thing he was doing? She's like 6. Only an actual p3do would think that she thought he was groping her, too."

    "Not that it's impossible to touch a minor inappropriately, but it is true that a 6 year old girl will not recognize someone putting a hand on their chest as groping, whether it is inappropriate or not."

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