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xHiroko
01-04-2015, 02:51 AM
Title,

I was wondering because...
LOGICALLY -> If you train one muscle group each day and eat in a surplus of 500, that'd be normal~ but :
If you train your WHOLE body, does it make your body hungry for more food? Let's say a surplus of 700 and still use most of it for building muscles?

Ok, I feel like I'm making things difficult, I'll explain it again.
Let's say you work your biceps ONLY -> you get back home, and at the end of the day you ate a surplus of 500 calories...
Your body won't use ALL of these calories for your biceps right? Since it's a small muscle.
But if you work ALL your muscles every workout, your body will probably need a higher surplus, right?
Or does the body still limit "clean bulking" to 250-500 calories surplus even if you workout all your muscles?

Gxp23
01-04-2015, 03:27 AM
No.

Connor1226
01-04-2015, 06:29 AM
Obviously yes.
Although it's easier to think of it in terms of percents, not just random numbers.
If X amount of muscle mass requires 5% caloric surplus for example to recover and build more myofibrils, well then the more muscle mass trained the more calories that need to be consumed in excess of your TDEE.

NOW, if you look at it just in terms of calories, it may not end up being that significant of a difference. If you burn more because you lift more, well you have to replace those burnt calories through food. That isn't increasing your surplus, that's just making up for the added calorie burn.

But the more tissue repair needed, the more calories needed.

ShyGuyXS
01-04-2015, 07:00 AM
Depending on how intense/long the workout is compared to the one-muscle-group workout, your TDEE may be higher because of the increased activity of muscle repairs. As Connor said, that could allow for a higher daily intake.

However, the overall surplus (assuming you're bulking) should be roughly the same.

(e.g. If you had a 300 calorie surplus before, aim for around the same 300-calorie surplus. Just change your food intake to support the change in activity.)