I have 2 kids. At least 1 of them is a boy What's the probability that both are boys?

[CBlackJack]

What is it?

[lacerveza]

18%

[CBlackJack]

Where's all the smart 10k a day CEOs?

[GrinDaddy]

1/3

[Oakbearer]

1/3???



Edit: age 16 and im smarter than 3/4 of the misc. Wtf brahs I'm not even a senior at high school yet.

[Geou]

When you have 2 kids, there are 4 possibilities for the gender distributions. With B representing Boy and G representing Girl, there's:
GG
GB
BG
BB

We know that GG is not the case, since there's at least 1 boy. That means GB, BG, and BB remain. Here, BB is the only case that satisfies having 2 boys. Thus, the probability of having BB is 1/3rd.

[LowestScum]

3.50

[ParCorey]

50% because we already know 1 is a boy.

[CBlackJack]

Yeee Misc, lol not sure why the poll has the wrong answer but all the posts are getting it right

[RussellJimenez]

3.50

the only correct answer

[Souleater123]

One is a boy that leaves three possibilities
BB
BG
GB
The probability that both are boys is 1-( prb of BG + prob of GB)
so prb of BG= prb of GB
Which is = 1/2*1/2
= 1/4
Hence probability BB= 1- (1/4 + 1/4)
Probability of BB= 1/2=50 percent

[Jallalabadbad]

50% because we already know 1 is a boy.

This.

[kingkarlkennedy]

I'd rather have race baiting threads than this garbage.

[Spanishgirl]

Still 50%

[Stynieke]

isn't this like that gameshow with 3 doors & 2 goats and a car or some chit? which made the answer 1/3th; but didn't get it so obvious answer still seems 50% to me lol

[bleeopbloop]

does anyone even math
answer is .55

[Apocc]

50% because we already know 1 is a boy.

This, assuming statistical independence.

A=second boy was born
B=first boy was born

P(A I B): probability of A given B has already occurred is 50% since whether A occurs or not after B having occurred is still 50% if both events are assumed to be statistically independent.

[RAND0M1ZER]

50% because we already know 1 is a boy.

This.

[phillyfreak7]

When you have 4 kids, there are 4 possibilities for the gender distributions. With B represents Boy and G representing Girl, there's:
GG
GB
BG
BB

We know that GG is not the case, since there's at least 1 boy. That means GB, BG, and BB remain. Here, BB is the only case that satisfies having 2 boys. Thus, the probability of having BB is 1/3rd.

This.

[Roma315]

dat 50 cent piece

[Apocc]

isn't this like that gameshow with 3 doors & 2 goats and a car or some chit? which made the answer 1/3th; but didn't get it so obvious answer still seems 50% to me lol

Monty hall problem.

3 doors
2 goats
1 car

When picking a door initially, you have a 2/3rd chance of landing on a goat and only a 1/3 chance of landing on the car.

When a door is removed from the selection, the host removes one of the goats and cannot remove the car.

IF you have a 2/3 chance of having selected a goat in your initial choice, you then have a 2/3 chance of the selection process to rid you of the second goat.


Hence, 2/3 of the time, when the host removes one of the doors, he is removing the second goat and the first goat is behind the door that you initially picked. So your odds of winning the car are 66.66% if you switch i.e. you will win 66.66% of the time by switching.

[Supearman]

you guys are retart srs

1/2 that first kid is a boy, 1/2 that the second is aswell

1/2*1/2=1/4

[flexnation]

50% because we already know 1 is a boy.

this. Some of you guys over thought this.

[AetherialCloud]

you guys are retart srs

1/2 that first kid is a boy, 1/2 that the second is aswell

1/2*1/2=1/4

Even though English is not my native language, I am fairly sure OP says that we know for a fact that one is a boy. No need for the first 1/2.

[Lt.Dangle]

When you have 2 kids, there are 4 possibilities for the gender distributions. With B represents Boy and G representing Girl, there's:
GG
GB
BG
BB

We know that GG is not the case, since there's at least 1 boy. That means GB, BG, and BB remain. Here, BB is the only case that satisfies having 2 boys. Thus, the probability of having BB is 1/3rd.

what is the diff between GB and BG

[D1Z]

My prayers are with you OP. Let's hope the other is a boy too.

[anonymous]

1/6. depends if the boy or girl identifies themselves as a boy or girl.



























































trolol

[DEVBRUH]

So many people failing at statistics...

The probability is 50%. The first child does not affect the second child's gender probability and there are two possibilities (boy + boy and boy + girl) with equal probabilities, so 50%.

[Geou]

what is the diff between GB and BG

GB is when your first child is a girl, and your second child is a boy. BG is the opposite order. Since each child is a mutually independent event, it's important to consider them differently like that.

[Critter5592]

This is the same idea as that choose 3 door theory that I can't think the name of. Basically you telling us that one of them is a boy makes it a higher than 50% chance, I believe 75 is correct.