yes, i know that's not a literal translation, but the point is effectively the same.
So why did he write this?
Was it because he believed that religion prohibited the working class from developing a 'class consciousness'?
Would he have also said the same thing about nationalism: that nationalism prohibits the development of 'class consciousness'?
do you think he would have said that anything that prohibits the development of class consciousness is a drug that prohibits a people from engaging in the reality of their class and station within society?